Infinite by definition cannot be “low-balling”.

I was being cheeky! It could've been that the set of non-Turing-computible problems had measure zero but still infinite cardinality. However there's the much stronger result that the set of Turing-computible problems actually has measure zero (for which I used 0% and the integer:reals thing as shorthands because I didn't want to talk measure theory on Lemmy). This is so weird, I never got downvoted for this stuff on Reddit.