So Latin spread pretty well across Europe, being the basis of almost every language there, but how come it didn't take as strong a hold in the Middle East? It's not as if the Romans were never there, and they lingered there far longer than they did in Europe. Was it just a matter of a stronger preexisting culture, or did the Arabs have something to do with it? What happened here?

you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
[–] [S] 2 points 3 days ago* (1 child)

Cmon man that is such a needless nitpick, especially as I had the qualifier "almost" in there. Also; booo AI, booo!

  • source
  • parent
  • hideshow 2 child comments
  • [–] 5 points 3 days ago* (1 child)

    ok, so "almost" all americans have an IQ below their president? 😅

  • source
  • parent
  • hideshow 2 child comments