So Latin spread pretty well across Europe, being the basis of almost every language there, but how come it didn't take as strong a hold in the Middle East? It's not as if the Romans were never there, and they lingered there far longer than they did in Europe. Was it just a matter of a stronger preexisting culture, or did the Arabs have something to do with it? What happened here?

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[–] 5 points 3 days ago

You knew exactly what I meant

Well, no. You are writing a less than precise style, and you are up the walls and ... whatever

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