While I am purposefully misconstruing the two definitions here, there is an argument to be made by this very principle that the post-selection effect on culture yields a convergence of the two

What's cooler than doing a mid bit with awful delivery and immediately explaining it? Trying to spin it into a serious argument by vomiting nonsense jargon.

I don't want to hear a word of complaint about obscurantist poststructuralists from this guy or anyone who likes him.