So Latin spread pretty well across Europe, being the basis of almost every language there, but how come it didn't take as strong a hold in the Middle East? It's not as if the Romans were never there, and they lingered there far longer than they did in Europe. Was it just a matter of a stronger preexisting culture, or did the Arabs have something to do with it? What happened here?

you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
[–] 5 points 3 days ago

That's not true

  • source
  • parent