▲ 34 ▼ Why in America is .08 the legal limit for drunk driving? How come it's not an even 0.10? Who decided at what level being drunk starts? Then 4 beers of 12oz's is 0.08 why is it that small? (lemmy.world) submitted 2 weeks ago by Patnou@lemmy.world to c/nostupidquestions@lemmy.world 93 comments fedilink hide all child comments
[–] healthetank@lemmy.ca 1 point 1 week ago (1 child) Chaterpedia is a great resource for us - the section 10 discussion explicitly discusses the legal situation of impaired driving. https://justice.gc.ca/eng/csj-sjc/rfc-dlc/ccrf-ccdl/check/art10b.html However, such a limit is justified under section 1 because of the importance of reducing the harm caused by impaired driving permalink fedilink source parent hideshow 2 child comments replies: [–] Karmanopoly@lemmy.world 1 point 1 week ago One might argue they aren't "rights" if they can be taken away when the crown feels like it permalink fedilink source parent
[–] Karmanopoly@lemmy.world 1 point 1 week ago One might argue they aren't "rights" if they can be taken away when the crown feels like it permalink fedilink source parent