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Reuters prefers a different term (lemmy.ml)
submitted 1 month ago by [M] to c/ManufacturingConsent@lemmy.ml
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[–] [S] 4 points 1 month ago* (1 child)

Even if you argue that a conflict against an armed group qualifies as a "war", you still get stuck with the other qualifier that a war is meant to neutralize the other parties military force not destroy its population. Because then it's genocide.

It's like calling the Holocaust "Hiter's war against Poland". Or the Armenian genocide "The war on Armenians".

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  • [–] -1 points 1 month ago (1 child)

    Of course Hitler invading and occupying Poland was an act of war, which enabled the genocide there. He couldn't have committed genocide in Poland without first conquering it. I'm not saying there is no genocide in Gaza, I'm saying: It can be a war and a genocide at the same time. While not always, genocide is often enabled by war. What's lost by calling it a war, independently of calling it a genocide?

    I don't think the Armenian genocide would've occurred without the Balkan wars and WW1; in this terrifying scale, anyway. However, quite like the genocide of Jews, Sinti, Roma, and other minorities in Germany at the hand of the Nazis, the Ottoman forces didn't need to invade anywhere to commit these atrocities within their own empire. Steep argument: Doesn't it deny Palestinian statehood to say that Israel were not leading a war on Gaza?

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