"Every time Trump or members of his administration have lashed out at Europe, including Ukraine, Europeans have absorbed the blow with a forced smile and bent over backwards to flatter the White House." (...)
"While a systemic answer to Europe’s security conundrum is not in sight, Europeans do have the levers to prevent Ukraine’s capitulation and create the conditions for a just peace."
Since the question is clearly meant to be rethorical, but it seems none obvious to me:
How does Slovakia, which was part of Austria.Hungary, which did not hold land outside Europe, benefit as much from colonialism as France, which had massive pieces of land?
The Irish claim that British rule over Ireland was a form of colonialism. So how did they benefit from that as much as the Dutch did from controlling Indonsia?
Why is there no difference between the size and time countries had colonial Empires at all? Germany had one for 30years or so, but Spain for centuries.