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[–] 5 points 1 year ago (2 children)

While that is the pop culture explanation it isn't quite right. In order for the parties to have flipped. The rural xenophobic bigots would have had to go to the Republican party. And the Republicans fascists would have had to have gone to the Democratic party.

The KKK and the bigots switched. The parties didn't really. The true irony being the KKK and Southern bigots were the huge influence on European fascists. But in the United States they were technically opposed simply because they had traditionally been in different political parties. But civil rights legislation brought about a realignment. Our ignorant xenophobic bigots and our fascist suddenly found themselves Brothers in Arms.

The party's polarized along the xenophobia and bigotry lines. But they didn't really switch.

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  • [–] 0 points 1 year ago (1 child)

    Only one party is enacting fascism here and it's not the Democrats. Such delusion.

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  • [–] 1 point 1 year ago (1 child)

    I didn't say otherwise. I literally implied that the xenophobic bigots and the fascists all joined together in the Republican Party. You need to work on reading comprehension I think.

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  • [–] -1 points 1 year ago (1 child)

    The rural xenophobic bigots would have had to go to the Republican party.

    That did happen

    And the Republicans fascists would have had to have gone to the Democratic party.

    This did not. So where did you say the opposite of what this means?

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  • [–] 1 point 1 year ago

    Yes the whole point of that statement was pointing out that the latter didn't happen. It was a rhetorical statement. The framing before that statement made it quite obvious. Stating that in order for the parties to have switched. The fascists would have to leave the Republican party. Which anyone who is informed knows did not happen. You are agreeing with me while attacking me.

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